anonymous
Traveller
2469 comments
Posted 16 years ago
Hi
I'm confused... I'm a Brit wanting to buy an interrail ticket to get from Totnes to Dover, where I'll get a ferry to France for my 3-week holiday. On one place on this website it said that travel in UK had no reduction, I'd pay 100% of the fare. In other place it said I'd get a 100% reduction and would pay 0% of the fare. Which is correct? Living in the country with the most expensive train tickets makes this an important consideration!
Many many thanks
Peter
Traveller
9333 comments
Hi B.
if your country of residence is the UK (and it is in your case) you pay: 100%
if your country of residence is NOT the UK, you travel: for FREE
this rule is not nice I know ... especially when living in big countries like the UK, France, Italy, Spain, Germany, ......
Peter :)
p.s.: here is a topic explaining why this rule exists: [u]https://rail.cc/en/country-of-residence/f947[/u]
and: [u]https://rail.cc/en/how-to-interrail[/u]